1	developmental surveillane		_____	birth-6 y/o, assess: personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, gross motor
2	developmental screening		_____	produced when the immune response is transferred from on person to another
3	Denver II		_____	common cause of gastroenteritis, shed in stool, live vaccine, must get before 32 weeks
4	Metabolic Screening		_____	IPV (Polio), MMR, Varicella
5	Metabolic Screening		_____	first does after birth/before hospital discharge, 3 dose req
6	Hearing Screen		_____	Dtap, DT, Tdap, Hep A, Hep B, Hib, Influenze, Pneumococcal, HPV, MCV 4
7	Weber Test		_____	MMR, Varicell, Rotovirus, Nasal influenza
8	Rinne Test		_____	TdaP
9	Vision Screening under 6 mths		_____	AE: faint, transient rash, arthralgia and low grade fever; FEMALES should not become pregnant within 3 mths
10	Vision Screening younger than 3 y/o		_____	Vision Screening: non verbal children ability to fixate on and follow objects
11	Vision Screening age 3		_____	Vision Screening: tumbling "E", allen figures, snellen eye chart
12	Iron Deficiency Anemia		_____	universal, all infants by 1 month of age, done prior to discharge
13	Hypertension Screening		_____	Td
14	Hyperlipidemia Screening		_____	infant with HBsAg + mom's should receive first immunization within 12hrs of birth as well as HBIG
15	Immunity		_____	universal at 3 y/o, anticipatory guidance on diet and lifestyle changes, 90-95th % considered prehypertension
16	Active immunity		_____	the ability to destroy and remove aspecific antigen from the body
17	Passive immunity		_____	Diminished iron stores, rapid growth, high metabolic demand
18	Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Acellular Pertussis: under 7 y/o		_____	assessment that identify children who warrant more intensive assessment and testing
19	Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Acellular Pertussis: 11 to 12		_____	yearly for 6-59 mths, live attenuated: intranasally, S/E: fever, malaise, myalgia
20	Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Acellular Pertussis: every 10 years		_____	not to be given to any child with an altered immune system or pregnancy
21	Haemophilus Influenza Type B (Hib)		_____	Distinguishes between conductive and sensorineural hearing, places vibrating fork on the middle of the client's head
22	Haemophilus Influenza Type B (Hib) infections		_____	Meningitis, epiglottitis, septic arthritis, pneumonia, sepsis
23	Haemophilus Influenza Type B (Hib)		_____	3-4 doses of conjugate vaccines, not given to children >5 y/o
24	MMR		_____	Vision Screening: black and white patterns
25	MMR		_____	live attenuated virus combo vaccine, can be given same day as other live vaccines, must NOT be give 28 days a part, cannot give to immunocompromised person
26	HepB		_____	state law indicates which test are mandatory, done prior to discharge from birthing unit
27	HepB		_____	Live attenuated virus, 2 doses, S/E: mild fever and/or rash within mouth, may be given post exposure
28	Varicella Zoster		_____	selective screening, children at high risk, risk assessment: family history sedentary lifestyle, smoking, obesity and diet diseases
29	Varicella Zoster		_____	DTaP
30	Influenza		_____	Rotovirus
31	Influenza		_____	deadly disease, spread through direct contact or air droplets, 1 dose
32	Rotovirus		_____	Detectable disorders: metabolic disorders, hematologic disorders, endocrinopathies
33	Human Papillomavirus		_____	acquired when one's own immune system generates immune response
34	Meningococcal Vaccine (MCV4)		_____	bacteria that causes life threatening illnesses in children under 5 y/o
35	Vaccine Administration Routes: IM		_____	Influenza
36	Vaccine Administration Routes: Subcu		_____	Test compares air and bone conduction hearing, Place the vibrating tuning fork on the base of the mastoid bone, Note the time interval and immediatly move the tuning fork to the auditory meatus
37	Vaccine Administration Routes: Oral		_____	transmitted direct skin to skin contact, causes cervical warts and cervical cancer, 3 doses
38	Vaccine Administration Routes: Intranasal		_____	ongoing collection on skilled observations made over time during health care visits
39	Live Virus Vaccines		_____	Contraindication: allergy to eggs
40	Live Virus Vaccines		_____	Contraindicated: hypersensitivity to gelatin, neomycin, immunosuppressed